Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ,
To God’s elect, exiles scattered throughout the provinces of Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia, who have been chosen according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through the sanctifying work of the Spirit, to be obedient to Jesus Christ and sprinkled with his blood: Grace and peace be yours in abundance. (I Peter 1:1-2)
Now as
they observed the confidence of Peter and John and understood that they were uneducated and untrained men, they were amazed,
and began to recognize
them as having been with Jesus. (Acts 4:13)
Peter
was executed (crucified upside down, according to accounts) in 64 AD. Higher
critics, who ignore what is actually said in the text, and what has been said
by others living around that time, and who seek fame and power by attempting to
prove everyone else wrong about Scripture suggest that it was written between 80
and 200 AD. Mostly, their complaint is about the caliber of the Greek language and
thought processes clearly used in the letter.
Because
he was a fisherman from Galilee, he couldn’t possibly be well-versed in Greek. Scripture
even describes Peter and John as being uneducated and untrained men. So how could
anyone think that Peter could write in excellent Greek or make a good Greek
argument?
The
first logical problem here is the assumption that the lack of education and
training attributed to Peter in Acts was a general deficit on his part. Peter
didn’t have a Ph.D. from one of the schools approved by the Pharisees or Sanhedrin.
So, because you don’t have a Ph.D. in law or theology from Harvard, you can’t
possibly learn to speak Spanish well or argue according to Spanish cultural
norms?
At Pentecost,
Peter and others were heard speaking in a large variety of languages, and no
one seems to have declared their use of the languages deficient. If God could
arrange for that, would it be impossible for Him to give Peter command of
Greek? Oh, but of course, miracles can’t
happen, so everything described in the gospels. and books of Acts must be lies –
so say the “scholars” whose careers have been built specifically in order to
reject the text they are studying as having value. They have a definite dog in
the fight, so it’s not surprising they try to change the rules of the right so
that their dog stands a better chance of winning.
If God
exists – and I have seen no good reason to reject that hypothesis – He’s able
to teach Peter Greek. It’s also possible that as a businessman in an area in which
Greek was spoken, he may have learned excellent Greek during his lifetime. He
may have even been able to speak excellent Greek when he was walking with Jesus,
but his native language was vernacular Aramaic. To the extent that most people
in the US learn a foreign language, most of us learn “schoolbook” versions of the
language, which is “excellent” because it is formally correct. That doesn’t
mean when we speak English, we don’t use slang or poor grammar. Our knowledge
of our own language is often less “proper” than our knowledge of a foreign
language.
It’s also possible that, like Paul, Peter
worked with scribes who might have known the language better than he. That
doesn’t mean God wasn’t in control.
The
other reason I suspect people want to distance this text from the first century
is because the Trinity is clearly described. The same scholars mentioned earlier
want to reject the idea that God was taught as triune until later. I suspect
this is done to build a case that Jesus was not seen as divine. Basically, just
another in a long line of attempts to discredit Scripture. Those who use this
argument are likely to claim they’re trying to be historically accurate, but
they have a pretext and presuppositions. In other words, they have an agenda
just as much as those who say that Jesus is the Son of God, and they are
religious in their devotion to that agenda.
I’ll
address the other two points of interest in this passage tomorrow.
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